Lucknow University B.B.A. (NEP) 1st Semester Question Papers 2026

This page contains complete, previous-year-style model question papers for all 4 core papers of the B.B.A. (NEP) First Semester at the Institute of Management Sciences, University of Lucknow: Principles of Management (P1), Business Statistics (P2), Financial Accounting (P3) and Business Communication (P4). Each subject has 5 full model sets (Set A to Set E), with 10 questions per set of 15 marks each (answer any five, maximum marks 75), prepared by LUUPDATE for focused exam practice. These are B.B.A. Semester I old-paper-style question banks meant to help you understand the exact pattern, unit-wise weightage and difficulty level you should expect in your actual university examination for the BBA NEP Semester I question paper.

P1: Principles of Management — Model Question Papers

Principles of Management (Paper P1, 4 Credits) covers the Nature and Significance of Management, Approaches to Management and the Contributions of Taylor, Fayol and Barnard, Functions of a Manager, Social Responsibility of Managers and Values in Management; Planning, Objectives, Steps of Planning, Decision Making, Organisation, Departmentation, Line and Staff Relationships, Delegation and Decentralisation and the Committee System; Staffing, Selection, Appraisal and Development of Managers, Directing and Motivation - Nature, Significance, Theories and Techniques; and Communication and Controlling - Process, Barriers, Control Techniques, Coordination and Managerial Effectiveness. Time: 3 Hours, Maximum Marks: 75. Answer any five of the ten questions given below; all questions carry equal marks (15 each). The five sets below (Set A to Set E) give you full practice coverage across every unit of the syllabus.

Set A

Q1. Explain the meaning, nature and significance of management as a distinct discipline, and discuss why management is regarded as both an art and a science. [15]

Q2. Discuss the various approaches to the study of management, such as the classical, behavioural, quantitative, systems and contingency approaches, bringing out their essential features. [15]

Q3. Explain the nature and significance of planning as a managerial function, and discuss why planning is regarded as the primary function of management. [15]

Q4. Discuss the concept and importance of objectives in the process of planning, and explain the characteristics of well-defined objectives. [15]

Q5. Explain the various steps involved in the process of planning, from setting objectives to formulating derivative plans. [15]

Q6. Explain the nature and significance of staffing as a managerial function, and discuss why it has assumed increasing importance in modern organisations. [15]

Q7. Discuss the process of selection of managerial personnel, outlining the various steps involved from recruitment to final placement. [15]

Q8. Examine the various methods and tools used for the appraisal of managers, and discuss the significance of performance appraisal in an organisation. [15]

Q9. Explain the meaning, definition and significance of communication in an organisation, and discuss the role it plays in the effective functioning of management. [15]

Q10. Discuss the process of communication, describing the various elements involved from the sender to feedback. [15]

Set B

Q1. Examine the contribution of F.W. Taylor to the development of scientific management, and discuss the principles and techniques he propounded to improve organisational efficiency. [15]

Q2. Discuss Henri Fayol's fourteen principles of management and evaluate their relevance to contemporary organisations. [15]

Q3. Decision making is the primary task of a planner. Discuss this statement, bringing out the significance of decision making as a key step in the planning process. [15]

Q4. Explain the process of decision making in an organisation, and discuss the various techniques used by managers to arrive at rational decisions. [15]

Q5. Discuss the various types of plans, such as standing plans and single-use plans, and examine the barriers that hinder effective planning in an organisation. [15]

Q6. Discuss the various methods of management development, such as on-the-job and off-the-job training techniques, and examine their relative merits. [15]

Q7. Staffing is concerned with placing the right person in the right job. Discuss this statement with reference to the process of selection and development of managers. [15]

Q8. Explain the meaning and significance of directing as a managerial function, and discuss the various issues involved in managing the human factor in an organisation. [15]

Q9. Examine the various barriers to effective communication in an organisation, and discuss the measures that may be adopted to overcome them. [15]

Q10. Discuss the steps a manager should take to build an effective communication system within an organisation. [15]

Set C

Q1. Explain Chester Barnard's concept of the organisation as a cooperative social system, and discuss his theory of authority and the concept of the zone of indifference. [15]

Q2. Compare and contrast the contributions of Taylor, Fayol and Barnard to management thought, bringing out the distinguishing features of their respective approaches. [15]

Q3. Explain the meaning, nature and significance of organisation as a managerial function, and discuss the characteristics of a sound organisation structure. [15]

Q4. Discuss the classical and neo-classical approaches to organisation, bringing out their essential features and limitations. [15]

Q5. Explain the concept of departmentation and discuss the various bases on which departments may be created in an organisation, such as function, product, territory and customer. [15]

Q6. Explain the nature and significance of motivation in the workplace, and discuss why motivating employees is considered a challenging task for managers. [15]

Q7. Discuss Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory of motivation and examine its relevance and limitations in explaining employee behaviour. [15]

Q8. Explain Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory of motivation, distinguishing between hygiene factors and motivators, and discuss its implications for managers. [15]

Q9. Explain the definition and elements of controlling as a managerial function, and discuss why control is regarded as essential for the achievement of organisational objectives. [15]

Q10. Discuss the various techniques of control used by managers, such as budgetary control, break-even analysis and management audit. [15]

Set D

Q1. Discuss the various functions performed by a manager, such as planning, organising, staffing, directing, coordinating and controlling, and explain how these functions are interrelated. [15]

Q2. Examine the concept of social responsibility of management, and discuss the responsibilities that a business enterprise owes towards its various stakeholders such as shareholders, employees, consumers, government and society at large. [15]

Q3. Distinguish between line authority and staff authority, and discuss the nature of line and staff relationships and the conflicts that commonly arise between them. [15]

Q4. Explain the concept of delegation of authority, and discuss the essential elements and principles that must be observed for effective delegation. [15]

Q5. Discuss the meaning and importance of decentralisation of authority, and distinguish it from delegation of authority. [15]

Q6. Discuss McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y of motivation, and examine how a manager's assumptions about human nature influence their style of directing. [15]

Q7. Explain Vroom's Expectancy Theory of motivation and discuss how it helps managers understand the process by which employees choose to exert effort. [15]

Q8. Discuss the various techniques of motivation available to a manager, such as financial and non-financial incentives, job enrichment and employee participation. [15]

Q9. Explain the concept of coordination and discuss why it is often described as the essence of management. [15]

Q10. Discuss the major determinants of an effective control system, and examine the essential characteristics that a sound control system must possess. [15]

Set E

Q1. Discuss the role of values and ethics in management, and examine how a manager's personal and organisational values influence decision making and the overall functioning of an enterprise. [15]

Q2. Management is a distinct process consisting of different but interrelated functions. Critically examine this statement with reference to the nature and scope of management as a discipline. [15]

Q3. Examine the merits and demerits of the committee system as a device of organisation, and discuss the circumstances under which committees are most useful. [15]

Q4. Discuss the major determinants of effective organizing, and examine the factors that a manager must consider while designing an organisation structure. [15]

Q5. A sound organisation structure is the foundation on which the entire edifice of management is built. Critically examine this statement with reference to the nature and significance of organisation. [15]

Q6. A departmental manager observes that despite a recent hike in salaries, the productivity and morale of employees in her department continue to decline. Analyse the possible reasons for this situation with reference to the theories of motivation, and suggest the measures the manager should adopt to improve employee motivation. [15]

Q7. Discuss the relationship between leadership and motivation, and examine how effective directing by a manager contributes to higher employee morale and productivity. [15]

Q8. Critically examine the various theories of motivation discussed in management literature, bringing out their comparative significance for practising managers. [15]

Q9. Explain the concept of managerial effectiveness, and discuss the factors that contribute to making a manager effective in the performance of managerial functions. [15]

Q10. A manufacturing company finds that despite having detailed plans and budgets in place, its actual production consistently falls short of targets and departments blame each other for the shortfall. Discuss, with reference to the concepts of controlling and coordination, how the manager should diagnose and address this problem. [15]

P2: Business Statistics — Model Question Papers

Business Statistics (Paper P2, 4 Credits) covers Data Summarisation - Classification and Tabulation of Data, Frequency Distribution, Measures of Central Tendency and Measures of Dispersion; Correlation and Regression - Scatter Diagram, Karl Pearson Coefficient of Correlation, Spearman Rank Correlation and Regression Lines and Coefficients; Probability - Concepts and Laws of Probability, Conditional Probability, Bayes' Theorem and Theoretical Probability Distributions such as Binomial, Poisson and Normal Distribution; and Sampling Distribution, Hypothesis Testing, z-Test and t-Test, and Type-I and Type-II Errors. Time: 3 Hours, Maximum Marks: 75. Answer any five of the ten questions given below; all questions carry equal marks (15 each). The five sets below (Set A to Set E) give you full practice coverage across every unit of the syllabus, including numerical and theoretical questions.

Set A

Q1. Explain the significance of statistics in business decision making, and discuss the meaning and distinction between data and information, describing the process of classification and tabulation of data collected for a business survey. [15]

Q2. Explain the meaning and objectives of a frequency distribution, and describe the steps involved in constructing a grouped frequency distribution from raw data, including the determination of the number of classes, class limits and class width. [15]

Q3. Explain the meaning and significance of correlation in business analysis, and discuss the various types of correlation, namely positive and negative, simple, partial and multiple, and linear and non-linear correlation, giving suitable business examples of each. [15]

Q4. Explain the Scatter Diagram method of studying correlation between two variables, and discuss how the nature and degree of correlation between the variables can be judged from the pattern of points plotted on the scatter diagram. [15]

Q5. Explain the meaning, formula and properties of the Karl Pearson Coefficient of Correlation, and discuss the assumptions and limitations of this measure of correlation. [15]

Q6. Explain the basic concepts used in the theory of probability, namely random experiment, sample space and event, and distinguish between the classical (a priori) definition and the empirical (statistical) definition of probability. [15]

Q7. State and explain the Addition Law and the Multiplication Law of Probability, and discuss the modification required in the Addition Law when the two events under consideration are not mutually exclusive. [15]

Q8. Distinguish between Independent Events and Mutually Exclusive Events in probability theory, illustrating the distinction with suitable business examples, and explain why two events having non-zero probabilities cannot be simultaneously independent and mutually exclusive. [15]

Q9. Explain the meaning and significance of a Sampling Distribution in statistical inference, and discuss the concept of the Standard Error of a statistic and its role in the process of hypothesis testing. [15]

Q10. Explain the concept of hypothesis testing in statistics, and discuss the formulation of the Null Hypothesis and the Alternative Hypothesis, distinguishing between a Simple Hypothesis and a Composite Hypothesis, and between a one-tailed and a two-tailed test. [15]

Set B

Q1. Discuss the meaning, computation and relative merits and demerits of the three principal measures of central tendency, namely Mean, Median and Mode, bringing out the situations in which each measure is most appropriate. [15]

Q2. The following table shows the daily wages (in Rs.) of 50 workers of a factory. Calculate the arithmetic mean of the wages by the step-deviation method. Class Intervals (Rs.): 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40, 40-50; Number of Workers: 5, 8, 15, 16, 6. [15]

Q3. The following data relate to the advertisement expenditure (X, in Rs. lakh) and sales (Y, in Rs. lakh) of five firms. Firm: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Advertisement Expenditure (X): 10, 20, 30, 40, 50; Sales (Y): 15, 18, 25, 30, 40. Calculate the Karl Pearson Coefficient of Correlation between advertisement expenditure and sales. [15]

Q4. The following data relate to the years of experience (X) and monthly incentive earned in Rs. thousand (Y) by five salesmen of a company. Salesman: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Years of Experience (X): 5, 10, 15, 20, 25; Monthly Incentive (Y): 8, 12, 18, 20, 30. Calculate the Karl Pearson Coefficient of Correlation between experience and incentive earned, using the method of deviations taken from the actual mean. [15]

Q5. Two judges in a management case-study competition ranked eight participating teams in the following order of merit. Judge A: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8; Judge B: 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, 7. Calculate Spearman's Rank Correlation Coefficient between the rankings given by the two judges, and comment on the degree of agreement between them. [15]

Q6. Explain the concept of Conditional Probability, and state and derive Bayes' Theorem, bringing out its significance in revising probabilities in the light of additional information. [15]

Q7. A bag contains 6 red, 4 white and 5 blue balls, identical in all respects except colour. If two balls are drawn at random from the bag without replacement, calculate the probability that both the balls drawn are of the same colour, applying the addition law of probability in your solution. [15]

Q8. In a factory, the probability that a randomly selected worker is a member of the trade union is 0.6, the probability that a worker is a woman is 0.3, and the probability that a worker is both a woman and a trade union member is 0.15. Calculate the probability that a randomly selected worker is either a trade union member or a woman, stating the addition law of probability applied. [15]

Q9. Describe, step by step, the general process followed in testing a statistical hypothesis, from the formulation of the hypothesis and the choice of the level of significance to the computation of the test statistic and the final decision regarding acceptance or rejection of the hypothesis. [15]

Q10. Explain the meaning of a Type-I Error and a Type-II Error in hypothesis testing, and discuss the relationship between these two types of errors, the level of significance and the power of a statistical test. [15]

Set C

Q1. The following table shows the marks obtained by 40 students of a college in an internal test. Calculate the median marks from the given distribution. Marks: 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40, 40-50; Number of Students: 4, 6, 10, 12, 8. [15]

Q2. The following table shows the monthly sales (in Rs. thousand) of 140 retail outlets of a company. Calculate the modal sales from the given frequency distribution. Sales (Rs. thousand): 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40, 40-50, 50-60; Number of Outlets: 2, 18, 30, 45, 35, 10. [15]

Q3. In a business quiz competition, two judges awarded the following marks (out of 100) to seven contestants. Contestant: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7; Judge P: 84, 78, 78, 90, 72, 66, 72; Judge Q: 80, 72, 80, 85, 68, 60, 65. Calculate Spearman's Rank Correlation Coefficient between the marks awarded by the two judges, applying the appropriate correction for tied ranks. [15]

Q4. Give an introduction to the concept of regression, and explain why there are, in general, two regression lines for a given set of bivariate data. Discuss the circumstances under which the two regression lines coincide. [15]

Q5. Explain the meaning of regression coefficients, and discuss their important properties, including their relationship with the Karl Pearson Coefficient of Correlation and the condition that the two regression coefficients must satisfy. [15]

Q6. In a survey of 200 employees of a company, 120 are graduates and 80 are non-graduates. Among the graduates, 90 are found to be satisfied with their present job, while among the non-graduates, 40 are found to be satisfied. If an employee selected at random from among all the satisfied employees, calculate the probability that this employee is a graduate, identifying the concept of probability involved. [15]

Q7. Three machines A, B and C in a factory produce 25%, 35% and 40% of the total output respectively, and the percentages of defective items produced by these machines are 5%, 4% and 2% respectively. If an item is selected at random from the total output of the factory and is found to be defective, calculate the probability that it was produced by machine A, using Bayes' Theorem. [15]

Q8. Explain the assumptions underlying the Binomial Probability Distribution, and derive expressions for its mean and variance, discussing the situations in business in which this distribution is commonly applied. [15]

Q9. A company claims that the average weekly production of its machine is 500 units. A random sample of 100 weeks' production shows a mean of 510 units with a standard deviation of 40 units. Test, at the 5 percent level of significance, whether the company's claim is valid, using the z-test for a single mean, given that the critical value of z at the 5 percent level of significance is 1.96. [15]

Q10. Two independent random samples are drawn from two populations of retail outlets of a company. The first sample of 60 outlets has a mean weekly sale of Rs. 250 thousand with a standard deviation of Rs. 30 thousand, while the second sample of 80 outlets has a mean weekly sale of Rs. 240 thousand with a standard deviation of Rs. 25 thousand. Test, at the 5 percent level of significance, whether there is a significant difference between the mean weekly sales of the two populations, using the z-test for difference of means, given that the critical value of z at the 5 percent level of significance is 1.96. [15]

Set D

Q1. The daily sales (in Rs. thousand) of a shopkeeper for 10 consecutive days were recorded as follows: 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 26, 28. Calculate the Range and the Mean Deviation about the mean for the given data, and briefly explain the significance of these measures of dispersion in business decision making. [15]

Q2. The following table gives the distribution of ages (in years) of 50 employees of a company. Calculate the Standard Deviation of the ages by the direct method. Age (years): 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40, 40-50; Number of Employees: 6, 10, 18, 10, 6. [15]

Q3. For a bivariate distribution relating to the price (X, in Rs.) and demand (Y, in units) of a commodity, it is given that the mean of X is 25, the mean of Y is 20, the standard deviation of X is 4, the standard deviation of Y is 3, and the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.6. Obtain the two regression equations of Y on X and of X on Y, and estimate the demand (Y) when the price (X) is 30. [15]

Q4. For a bivariate distribution relating to the monthly income (X) and monthly savings (Y) of a group of households, it is given that the covariance between X and Y is 15, the variance of X is 25 and the variance of Y is 16. Obtain the two regression coefficients, byx and bxy, and determine the coefficient of correlation between income and savings. [15]

Q5. The two regression lines obtained for a bivariate data relating to the sales (X, in Rs. lakh) and profit (Y, in Rs. lakh) of a group of firms are given as 2Y = X + 20 and 5X = 6Y - 20. Identify which line is the regression of Y on X and which is the regression of X on Y, and find (a) the mean values of X and Y and (b) the coefficient of correlation between X and Y. [15]

Q6. The probability that a particular machine produces a defective item is 0.1. If a random sample of 8 items is selected from the output of the machine, calculate the probability that exactly 2 items in the sample are defective, using the Binomial probability distribution, and state the mean and variance of the number of defective items in such samples. [15]

Q7. Explain the assumptions underlying the Poisson Probability Distribution, and discuss the circumstances under which the Poisson distribution may be used as a good approximation to the Binomial distribution. [15]

Q8. A call centre receives, on an average, 4 complaint calls per hour. Assuming that the number of complaint calls received in an hour follows a Poisson distribution, calculate the probability that in a given hour the call centre receives exactly 3 complaint calls, and state the mean and variance of the distribution used. [15]

Q9. In a market survey, 120 out of 400 customers in city A and 75 out of 300 customers in city B were found to prefer a particular brand of soap. Test, at the 5 percent level of significance, whether the proportion of customers preferring the brand differs significantly between the two cities, using the z-test for difference of proportions, given that the critical value of z at the 5 percent level of significance is 1.96. [15]

Q10. A random sample of 10 packets of a food product is found to have a mean weight of 498 grams with a standard deviation of 6 grams. The manufacturer claims that the packets are, on average, filled to a weight of 500 grams. Test, at the 5 percent level of significance, whether the manufacturer's claim is valid, using the t-test for a single mean, given that the critical value of t at the 5 percent level of significance for the relevant degrees of freedom is 2.262. [15]

Set E

Q1. Discuss the meaning and significance of measures of dispersion in the analysis of business data, and distinguish between absolute and relative measures of dispersion, explaining the use of the Coefficient of Variation in comparing the variability of two or more distributions. [15]

Q2. The following table shows the distribution of weekly expenditure (in Rs.) on food of 50 households in a locality. Calculate the Mean, Standard Deviation and Coefficient of Variation of the weekly food expenditure. Expenditure (Rs.): 0-20, 20-40, 40-60, 60-80, 80-100; Number of Households: 8, 12, 20, 7, 3. [15]

Q3. The following data relate to the advertisement expenditure (X, in Rs. lakh) and sales (Y, in Rs. lakh) of a company over six years. Year: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6; Advertisement Expenditure (X): 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12; Sales (Y): 20, 25, 34, 38, 45, 52. Calculate the Karl Pearson Coefficient of Correlation between advertisement expenditure and sales, and obtain the regression equation of sales (Y) on advertisement expenditure (X). [15]

Q4. Distinguish between correlation and regression as tools of statistical analysis in business, and discuss the important properties of regression coefficients that help in verifying whether a given pair of regression equations has been correctly identified. [15]

Q5. Two judges rated eight contestants of a management aptitude test on a scale of 100 marks as follows. Contestant: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8; Judge R: 55, 60, 60, 72, 80, 80, 80, 45; Judge S: 50, 65, 58, 75, 78, 82, 70, 40. Calculate Spearman's Rank Correlation Coefficient between the ratings of the two judges, applying the appropriate correction for tied ranks. [15]

Q6. Discuss the important characteristics and properties of the Normal Probability Distribution, and explain the process of converting a normal variate into a Standard Normal Variate for computing probabilities using normal probability tables. [15]

Q7. The weekly wages of workers in a large factory are normally distributed with a mean of Rs. 5,000 and a standard deviation of Rs. 400. Calculate the probability that a randomly selected worker earns a weekly wage between Rs. 4,600 and Rs. 5,800, using the standard normal distribution. [15]

Q8. The probability that machine X will be working properly at a given point of time is 0.9, and the probability that machine Y will be working properly at the same point of time, independently of machine X, is 0.8. Calculate the probability that at least one of the two machines is working properly at that time, applying the multiplication law of probability for independent events. [15]

Q9. Two independent random samples are drawn from two normal populations having equal variances. The first sample of 8 observations has a mean of 45 with a standard deviation of 5, while the second sample of 10 observations has a mean of 40 with a standard deviation of 6. Test, at the 5 percent level of significance, whether there is a significant difference between the two population means, using the t-test for difference of means based on pooled variance, given that the critical value of t at the 5 percent level of significance for the relevant degrees of freedom is 2.120. [15]

Q10. In a study of the effect of a new training programme on the sales performance of salesmen, the sales figures (in Rs. thousand) of a random sample of 8 salesmen were recorded before and after the training programme, and the mean of the differences (after minus before) was found to be 4 with a standard deviation of the differences of 3. Test, at the 5 percent level of significance, whether the training programme has significantly improved the sales performance, using the paired t-test, given that the critical value of t at the 5 percent level of significance for the relevant degrees of freedom, for a one-tailed test, is 1.895. [15]

P3: Financial Accounting — Model Question Papers

Financial Accounting (Paper P3, 4 Credits) covers the Meaning, Objectives, Process and Branches of Accounting, Bases of Accounting, GAAP, Indian Accounting Standards and IFRS; Classification of Accounts, Recording and Posting of Transactions, Trial Balance, Capital and Revenue Items and Final Accounts of Sole Proprietorship with Adjustment Entries; Valuation of Inventories under FIFO, LIFO and Weighted Average Methods, Depreciation under the Straight Line and Written Down Value Methods, Bank Reconciliation Statement and an Introduction to Corporate Accounting; and Analysis of Financial Statements, Trend Analysis, Ratio Analysis and the Statement of Cash Flow under the Indirect Method. Time: 3 Hours, Maximum Marks: 75. Answer any five of the ten questions given below; all questions carry equal marks (15 each). The five sets below (Set A to Set E) give you full practice coverage across every unit of the syllabus, with a strong focus on numerical problems.

Set A

Q1. Explain the meaning and objectives of accounting, and discuss the various stages involved in the process of accounting from the recording of transactions to the communication of results. [15]

Q2. Discuss the meaning and scope of the various branches of accounting, namely Financial Accounting, Cost Accounting and Management Accounting, bringing out the distinguishing features of each. [15]

Q3. Explain the classification of accounts into Personal, Real and Nominal accounts, and state the golden rules of debit and credit applicable to each category with suitable examples. [15]

Q4. Distinguish between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure, and between capital receipts and revenue receipts, giving suitable examples of each and explaining their treatment in final accounts. [15]

Q5. From the following transactions of a sole trader for the month of April, pass the necessary journal entries, post them to the relevant ledger accounts and prepare a Trial Balance as on 30 April: (1) Started business with cash Rs. 2,00,000 and furniture Rs. 20,000. (2) Deposited Rs. 1,50,000 into bank. (3) Purchased goods for cash Rs. 60,000. (4) Purchased goods from Ramesh on credit Rs. 40,000. (5) Sold goods for cash Rs. 50,000. (6) Sold goods to Suresh on credit Rs. 70,000. (7) Paid Ramesh Rs. 38,000 in full settlement of his account of Rs. 40,000. (8) Received Rs. 68,000 from Suresh in full settlement of his account of Rs. 70,000. (9) Paid rent Rs. 8,000 and salaries Rs. 12,000 by cheque. (10) Withdrew cash Rs. 5,000 for personal use. (11) Purchased office equipment for cash Rs. 15,000. [15]

Q6. Explain the meaning and significance of inventory valuation, and discuss why the basis chosen for valuing inventory affects both the Trading Account and the Balance Sheet of a business. [15]

Q7. Distinguish between the periodic inventory system and the perpetual inventory system of maintaining inventory records, bringing out the merits and limitations of each. [15]

Q8. The following are the purchases and sales of an item during the month of January: 1 Jan Opening Stock 100 units @ Rs. 20; 5 Jan Purchased 200 units @ Rs. 22; 10 Jan Sold 150 units; 15 Jan Purchased 150 units @ Rs. 24; 20 Jan Sold 200 units; 25 Jan Purchased 100 units @ Rs. 25; 28 Jan Sold 80 units. Calculate the value of Closing Inventory and the Cost of Goods Sold under the First-In-First-Out (FIFO) method, assuming a periodic inventory system. [15]

Q9. Explain the meaning, types and significance of the analysis of financial statements, and distinguish between horizontal analysis and vertical analysis. [15]

Q10. Explain the meaning and technique of trend analysis, and discuss its utility and limitations as a tool of financial statement analysis. [15]

Set B

Q1. Distinguish between the cash basis and the accrual basis of accounting, and discuss the merits and limitations of each with reference to their suitability for different types of organisations. [15]

Q2. Discuss the information needs of the different users of accounting information, both internal and external, and explain how financial statements help each of them in decision making. [15]

Q3. From the following list of ledger balances of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare a Trial Balance: Capital Rs. 3,00,000; Drawings Rs. 20,000; Opening Stock Rs. 50,000; Purchases Rs. 4,50,000; Sales Rs. 6,80,000; Sales Returns Rs. 8,000; Purchases Returns Rs. 6,000; Wages Rs. 30,000; Salaries Rs. 60,000; Rent Rs. 24,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 1,20,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 90,000; Plant and Machinery Rs. 2,00,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 14,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 1,00,000. [15]

Q4. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year and a Balance Sheet as on that date: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 40,000; Purchases Rs. 3,00,000; Sales Returns Rs. 5,000; Wages Rs. 20,000; Salaries Rs. 45,000; Rent Rs. 18,000; Insurance Rs. 6,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 80,000; Furniture Rs. 50,000; Machinery Rs. 1,00,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 10,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 66,000; Drawings Rs. 15,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 5,00,000; Purchases Returns Rs. 4,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 60,000; Capital Rs. 1,91,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 50,000; (ii) Depreciate Furniture and Machinery @10% p.a. each. [15]

Q5. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 30,000; Purchases Rs. 2,50,000; Wages Rs. 15,000; Salaries Rs. 40,000; Rent Rs. 20,000; Insurance Rs. 9,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 70,000; Furniture Rs. 40,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 55,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 6,000; Drawings Rs. 10,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 4,20,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 45,000; Capital Rs. 80,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 35,000; (ii) Salaries Outstanding Rs. 4,000; (iii) Rent Outstanding Rs. 2,000; (iv) Insurance Prepaid Rs. 1,000 (included in the amount paid). [15]

Q6. The following are the purchases and sales of an item during the month of March: 1 Mar Opening Stock 80 units @ Rs. 30; 4 Mar Purchased 120 units @ Rs. 32; 9 Mar Sold 100 units; 14 Mar Purchased 100 units @ Rs. 34; 18 Mar Sold 120 units; 24 Mar Purchased 60 units @ Rs. 35; 29 Mar Sold 50 units. Calculate the value of Closing Inventory and the Cost of Goods Sold under the Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) method, assuming a periodic inventory system. [15]

Q7. The following are the purchases and sales of an item during the month of May: 1 May Opening Stock 100 units @ Rs. 40; 5 May Purchased 150 units @ Rs. 42; 10 May Sold 150 units; 15 May Purchased 100 units @ Rs. 44; 20 May Sold 110 units; 26 May Purchased 50 units @ Rs. 46. Calculate the value of Closing Inventory and the Cost of Goods Sold under the Weighted Average Cost method, assuming a periodic inventory system. [15]

Q8. Prepare a Stores Ledger Account (perpetual inventory record) under the First-In-First-Out (FIFO) method from the following receipts and issues of an item during the month of June, and ascertain the value of closing inventory: 1 June Opening Balance 60 units @ Rs. 50; 4 June Received 100 units @ Rs. 52; 8 June Issued 80 units; 15 June Received 90 units @ Rs. 54; 20 June Issued 100 units; 25 June Received 40 units @ Rs. 55; 28 June Issued 50 units. [15]

Q9. From the following data of sales of a company for five years, calculate the trend percentages taking the first year as the base year, and comment on the trend: Year 1 Rs. 2,00,000; Year 2 Rs. 2,20,000; Year 3 Rs. 2,50,000; Year 4 Rs. 2,75,000; Year 5 Rs. 3,20,000. [15]

Q10. Explain the meaning, objectives and classification of accounting ratios used in the analysis of financial statements, distinguishing between liquidity, solvency, profitability and activity ratios. [15]

Set C

Q1. Explain the meaning and importance of ethics in accounting, and discuss the major ethical issues that may confront an accountant while preparing and presenting financial statements. [15]

Q2. Explain the meaning and significance of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), and discuss the basic accounting concepts underlying the preparation of financial statements, such as going concern, consistency, accrual, prudence and matching. [15]

Q3. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 25,000; Purchases Rs. 2,00,000; Wages Rs. 10,000; Salaries Rs. 35,000; Rent Rs. 15,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 60,000; Machinery Rs. 80,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 40,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 5,000; Drawings Rs. 8,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 3,50,000; Commission Received Rs. 12,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 40,000; Capital Rs. 76,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 30,000; (ii) Interest accrued but not received on investments Rs. 2,000; (iii) Commission received in advance Rs. 3,000 (out of the amount received). [15]

Q4. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 35,000; Purchases Rs. 2,80,000; Sales Returns Rs. 5,000; Wages Rs. 12,000; Salaries Rs. 38,000; Rent Rs. 16,000; Bad Debts Rs. 3,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 1,00,000; Furniture Rs. 45,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 50,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 7,000; Drawings Rs. 9,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 4,10,000; Provision for Doubtful Debts Rs. 4,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 56,000; Capital Rs. 1,30,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 40,000; (ii) Further Bad Debts Rs. 5,000 to be written off; (iii) Provision for Doubtful Debts is to be maintained @5% on the remaining Debtors. [15]

Q5. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 42,000; Purchases Rs. 3,10,000; Wages Rs. 18,000; Salaries Rs. 50,000; Insurance Rs. 7,000; Rent Rs. 22,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 90,000; Furniture Rs. 60,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 48,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 8,000; Drawings Rs. 12,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 4,60,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 62,000; Capital Rs. 1,45,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 55,000; (ii) Salaries Outstanding Rs. 6,000; (iii) Insurance Prepaid Rs. 1,500; (iv) Depreciate Furniture @10% p.a. [15]

Q6. Prepare a Stores Ledger Account (perpetual inventory record) under the Weighted Average (moving average) method from the following receipts and issues of an item during the month of July, and ascertain the value of closing inventory: 1 July Opening Balance 50 units @ Rs. 60; 5 July Received 50 units @ Rs. 64; 10 July Issued 60 units; 16 July Received 80 units @ Rs. 66; 22 July Issued 90 units; 27 July Received 40 units @ Rs. 68; 30 July Issued 30 units. [15]

Q7. Explain the meaning of depreciation, and discuss the causes and objectives of providing for depreciation on fixed assets in the books of a business. [15]

Q8. A machine was purchased for Rs. 5,00,000. Its estimated useful life is 10 years and its estimated residual value at the end of its useful life is Rs. 50,000. Calculate the amount of annual depreciation and show the Machinery Account for the first three years under the Straight Line Method (SLM) of depreciation. [15]

Q9. From the following particulars of a company's Balance Sheet, calculate the Current Ratio, the Quick Ratio and the Debt-Equity Ratio: Cash Rs. 20,000; Debtors Rs. 40,000; Stock Rs. 60,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 50,000; Outstanding Expenses Rs. 10,000; Long-term Loan Rs. 1,50,000; Share Capital Rs. 2,50,000; Reserves Rs. 50,000; Fixed Assets (net) Rs. 3,90,000. [15]

Q10. From the following particulars, calculate the Gross Profit Ratio, the Net Profit Ratio, the Operating Ratio and the Return on Investment: Sales Rs. 8,00,000; Cost of Goods Sold Rs. 5,60,000; Operating Expenses Rs. 1,20,000; Capital Employed Rs. 6,00,000. [15]

Set D

Q1. Discuss the meaning and significance of the various accounting conventions, such as full disclosure, materiality, conservatism and consistency, with suitable examples of each. [15]

Q2. Explain the meaning, objectives and significance of Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS), and discuss the need for a uniform framework of accounting standards in India. [15]

Q3. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 38,000; Purchases Rs. 2,95,000; Wages Rs. 14,000; Salaries Rs. 42,000; Rent Rs. 19,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 1,10,000; Machinery Rs. 1,20,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 60,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 9,000; Drawings Rs. 11,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 4,40,000; Commission Received Rs. 10,000; Provision for Doubtful Debts Rs. 5,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 63,000; Capital Rs. 2,00,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 48,000; (ii) Interest accrued but not received Rs. 2,500; (iii) Commission received in advance Rs. 2,000; (iv) Provision for Doubtful Debts to be maintained @5% on Debtors; (v) Depreciate Machinery @15% p.a. [15]

Q4. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 30,000; Purchases Rs. 2,40,000; Wages Rs. 10,000; Salaries Rs. 36,000; Rent Rs. 14,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 65,000; Furniture Rs. 50,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 45,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 6,000; Drawings Rs. 20,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 3,70,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 46,000; Capital Rs. 1,00,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 32,000; (ii) Provide interest on Capital @6% p.a. and interest on Drawings @5% p.a. [15]

Q5. Explain the meaning and accounting treatment of accrued income, prepaid expenses, outstanding expenses and unearned income (income received in advance), and illustrate the adjusting journal entry required for each with imaginary figures. [15]

Q6. A machine was purchased for Rs. 4,00,000. Depreciation is to be provided @15% per annum under the Written Down Value (WDV) method. Calculate the depreciation and the book value of the machine at the end of each of the first three years, and show the Machinery Account. [15]

Q7. An asset costing Rs. 3,00,000 has an estimated useful life of 5 years and a scrap value of Rs. 30,000. Calculate the depreciation charge and the book value of the asset for the first two years under the Straight Line Method, and compare the same with the depreciation and book value under the Written Down Value Method at the rate of 25% per annum. [15]

Q8. Explain the meaning and need for preparing a Bank Reconciliation Statement, and discuss the common causes of difference between the balance shown by the Cash Book and the balance shown by the Pass Book. [15]

Q9. From the following particulars, calculate the Inventory Turnover Ratio, the Debtors Turnover Ratio and the Average Collection Period: Credit Sales Rs. 9,00,000; Cost of Goods Sold Rs. 6,30,000; Average Inventory Rs. 90,000; Average Debtors Rs. 1,00,000. [15]

Q10. Explain the meaning and importance of a Cash Flow Statement, and distinguish between cash flows from operating activities, investing activities and financing activities. [15]

Set E

Q1. Explain the meaning and objectives of International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS), and discuss the process, benefits and challenges of convergence of Indian Accounting Standards with IFRS. [15]

Q2. Distinguish between book-keeping and accounting, and discuss the relationship between accounting principles, accounting standards and the true and fair presentation of financial statements. [15]

Q3. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 48,000; Purchases Rs. 3,30,000; Sales Returns Rs. 6,000; Wages Rs. 20,000; Salaries Rs. 55,000; Rent Rs. 24,000; Insurance Rs. 8,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 1,20,000; Machinery Rs. 1,50,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 70,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 10,000; Drawings Rs. 15,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 5,20,000; Provision for Doubtful Debts Rs. 6,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 70,000; Capital Rs. 2,60,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 60,000; (ii) Depreciate Machinery @10% p.a.; (iii) Salaries Outstanding Rs. 5,000; (iv) Insurance Prepaid Rs. 2,000; (v) Provision for Doubtful Debts to be maintained @6% on Debtors. [15]

Q4. Explain the meaning and purpose of adjustment entries in the preparation of final accounts, and discuss why adjustments relating to closing inventory and depreciation are necessary even though they do not appear in the Trial Balance. [15]

Q5. From the following Trial Balance and additional information of a sole trader as on 31 March, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet: Debit balances - Opening Stock Rs. 26,000; Purchases Rs. 2,10,000; Wages Rs. 9,000; Salaries Rs. 32,000; Rent Rs. 13,000; Sundry Debtors Rs. 58,000; Furniture Rs. 36,000; Cash at Bank Rs. 42,000; Cash in Hand Rs. 4,000; Drawings Rs. 7,000. Credit balances - Sales Rs. 3,30,000; Rent Received Rs. 8,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 39,000; Capital Rs. 60,000. Additional information: (i) Closing Stock Rs. 29,000; (ii) Rent Received in Advance Rs. 1,500; (iii) Salaries Outstanding Rs. 3,000; (iv) Depreciate Furniture @10% p.a. under the Written Down Value (WDV) method. [15]

Q6. On 31 March, the balance as per the Cash Book of a trader was Rs. 45,000. On comparing the Cash Book with the Pass Book, it was found that: (i) cheques issued but not yet presented for payment amounted to Rs. 8,000; (ii) cheques deposited into the bank but not yet credited amounted to Rs. 5,000; (iii) bank charges of Rs. 500 were debited by the bank but not entered in the Cash Book; (iv) interest of Rs. 700 was credited by the bank but not entered in the Cash Book; (v) a cheque for Rs. 2,000 deposited into the bank was dishonoured, but no entry for the dishonour was made in the Cash Book. Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement to ascertain the balance as per the Pass Book. [15]

Q7. On 31 March, the balance as per the Pass Book of a trader was Rs. 60,000. On comparing the Pass Book with the Cash Book, it was found that: (i) cheques issued but not yet presented for payment amounted to Rs. 10,000; (ii) cheques deposited into the bank but not yet cleared amounted to Rs. 6,000; (iii) bank charges of Rs. 400 were debited by the bank but not entered in the Cash Book; (iv) interest of Rs. 900 was credited by the bank but not entered in the Cash Book; (v) a customer directly deposited Rs. 3,000 into the trader's bank account, of which no entry was made in the Cash Book. Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement to ascertain the balance as per the Cash Book. [15]

Q8. Explain the preparation of the financial statements of a company, namely the Statement of Profit and Loss and the Balance Sheet as per Schedule III of the Companies Act, and discuss the main contents of a company's annual report. [15]

Q9. From the following information of a company for the year, prepare a Cash Flow Statement from Operating Activities by the Indirect Method: Net Profit before Tax Rs. 1,50,000; Depreciation Rs. 40,000; Loss on Sale of Asset Rs. 5,000; Profit on Sale of Investment Rs. 3,000; Increase in Debtors Rs. 20,000; Decrease in Stock Rs. 15,000; Increase in Creditors Rs. 10,000; Tax Paid Rs. 25,000. [15]

Q10. From the following comparative Balance Sheets of a company as on 31 March of two consecutive years, and the additional information given, prepare a Cash Flow Statement by the Indirect Method: Balance Sheet (Year 1 / Year 2) - Share Capital Rs. 5,00,000 / Rs. 5,00,000; General Reserve Rs. 1,00,000 / Rs. 1,30,000; Profit and Loss Account Rs. 50,000 / Rs. 70,000; Long-term Loan Rs. 2,00,000 / Rs. 1,50,000; Sundry Creditors Rs. 80,000 / Rs. 95,000; Outstanding Expenses Rs. 10,000 / Rs. 15,000; Land and Building Rs. 4,00,000 / Rs. 4,00,000; Plant and Machinery (net) Rs. 3,00,000 / Rs. 3,30,000; Stock Rs. 1,20,000 / Rs. 1,10,000; Debtors Rs. 1,00,000 / Rs. 1,15,000; Cash and Bank Rs. 20,000 / Rs. 5,000. Additional information: (i) Depreciation charged on Plant and Machinery during Year 2 was Rs. 40,000; (ii) Dividend of Rs. 15,000 was paid during Year 2. [15]

P4: Business Communication — Model Question Papers

Business Communication (Paper P4, 4 Credits) covers an Introduction to Business Communication, Characteristics of Effective Organizational Communication, the Process of Communication, Barriers to Communication and Principles of Effective Business Communication; Oral Communication, Effective Listening, Non-verbal Communication, Written Communication and Employment Communication including Application Letter and Resume Writing; the Conduct of Meetings - Agenda, Notice, Minutes, Office Memorandum, Office Orders and Press Release, Business Letter Writing and Report Writing; and Corporate Communication, Public Relations, the Role of Social Media, the Role of Technology (ICTs) and Business Etiquette. Time: 3 Hours, Maximum Marks: 75. Answer any five of the ten questions given below; all questions carry equal marks (15 each). The five sets below (Set A to Set E) give you full practice coverage across every unit of the syllabus, including drafting-based practical questions.

Set A

Q1. Explain the meaning, importance and objectives of business communication, and discuss the characteristics of effective organizational communication. [15]

Q2. Discuss the basic forms of communication such as verbal and non-verbal, formal and informal, and upward, downward, horizontal and diagonal communication, bringing out the significance of each in an organizational context. [15]

Q3. Discuss the purpose, advantages and disadvantages of oral communication as compared to written communication, with suitable business examples. [15]

Q4. Explain the principles of effective oral communication and discuss the qualities that make an oral communicator effective in a business setting. [15]

Q5. Explain the meaning and importance of effective listening in business communication, and discuss the barriers that prevent listening from being effective. [15]

Q6. Explain the meaning and importance of an agenda and a notice for conducting a meeting, and discuss the essential contents of each. [15]

Q7. Draft a notice and agenda for the Annual General Meeting of a company to be held to consider the annual accounts and to appoint directors. [15]

Q8. Explain the meaning, importance and essential features of minutes of a meeting, and discuss the different methods of recording minutes. [15]

Q9. Explain the meaning, scope and components of corporate communication in a modern business organization. [15]

Q10. Discuss the relationship between corporate communication and public relations, bringing out the similarities and differences between the two. [15]

Set B

Q1. Explain the process of communication with the help of a suitable model, describing the role of sender, message, encoding, channel, receiver, decoding, feedback and noise. [15]

Q2. Discuss the various barriers to effective communication, such as semantic, psychological, organizational and physical barriers, and suggest measures to overcome them. [15]

Q3. Discuss the various types and functions of non-verbal communication, such as kinesics, proxemics, paralanguage and chronemics, in a business context. [15]

Q4. Discuss the purpose, advantages and disadvantages of written communication, and explain the situations in which written communication is preferable to oral communication. [15]

Q5. Explain the principles of effective written communication and discuss how the seven Cs of communication, namely completeness, conciseness, consideration, concreteness, clarity, courtesy and correctness, contribute to effective business writing. [15]

Q6. Write the minutes of a meeting of the Board of Directors called to discuss the declaration of dividend and the appointment of a new auditor. [15]

Q7. Explain the meaning and purpose of an office memorandum and an office order, distinguishing between the two with suitable examples. [15]

Q8. Discuss the meaning and importance of a press release, and explain the essential elements that make a press release effective. [15]

Q9. Explain the role of social media in business communication, and discuss its advantages and challenges for corporate organizations. [15]

Q10. Discuss the role of Information and Communication Technology, that is ICT, in transforming business communication in the present era. [15]

Set C

Q1. Explain the principles of effective business communication and discuss how their observance improves the quality of communication within an organization. [15]

Q2. Distinguish between formal and informal communication networks in an organization, and explain the role of the grapevine as an informal channel of communication. [15]

Q3. Discuss the various techniques of effective writing that a business communicator should adopt while drafting official correspondence. [15]

Q4. Explain the meaning and importance of employment communication, and discuss the essential contents of a well-drafted application letter for a job. [15]

Q5. Discuss the essential features of an effective resume and explain the different formats in which a resume may be prepared. [15]

Q6. Explain the need, functions and kinds of business letters, and discuss the essential qualities of an effective business letter. [15]

Q7. Discuss the layout and essential parts of a business letter, explaining the different layout styles such as full block, modified block and semi-block. [15]

Q8. Draft a business letter placing an order for goods with a supplier, specifying quantity, price, mode of payment and delivery schedule. [15]

Q9. Explain the meaning and importance of business etiquette, and discuss the etiquette to be observed in business meetings and correspondence. [15]

Q10. Discuss the various components of corporate communication, such as media relations, employee communication, investor relations and crisis communication. [15]

Set D

Q1. Discuss the significance of communication as a tool of management, and examine how effective communication contributes to coordination, motivation and decision-making within an organization. [15]

Q2. Explain the meaning and importance of feedback in the communication process, and discuss the problems that arise when feedback is inadequate or delayed. [15]

Q3. Draft a resume for a fresher applying for a marketing role in a reputed company, along with a suitable covering application letter. [15]

Q4. Distinguish between oral and non-verbal communication, and discuss how the two complement each other in face-to-face business interaction. [15]

Q5. Explain the barriers to effective listening in an organizational setting and suggest measures that a manager may adopt to become an effective listener. [15]

Q6. Draft a business letter of complaint regarding defective goods received against an order, and suggest the remedies sought. [15]

Q7. Explain the meaning, objectives and significance of report writing in business organizations. [15]

Q8. Discuss the problems generally faced in report writing, and explain the essential steps involved in the organization of a business report. [15]

Q9. Explain the significance of public relations as a component of corporate communication, and discuss the tools and techniques used by organizations to build a favourable public image. [15]

Q10. Discuss the impact of digital and social media platforms on corporate communication strategies, with suitable examples. [15]

Set E

Q1. "Communication is the lifeblood of every organization." Discuss this statement with reference to the role of communication in achieving organizational objectives. [15]

Q2. Explain the concept of organizational communication and discuss the essential characteristics that distinguish effective communication from ineffective communication within a business enterprise. [15]

Q3. Draft an application letter along with a resume for the post of Management Trainee in response to a newspaper advertisement, giving suitable imaginary particulars. [15]

Q4. Discuss the role of body language and eye contact in oral communication, and explain how non-verbal cues may sometimes contradict the spoken word. [15]

Q5. "Written communication provides a permanent record while oral communication provides speed." Discuss this statement with reference to the relative advantages and disadvantages of the two forms of communication. [15]

Q6. Discuss the essential techniques of effective report writing, and distinguish between a formal and an informal business report. [15]

Q7. Write the minutes of a meeting called to discuss the launch of a new product, incorporating the resolutions passed and the follow-up action assigned. [15]

Q8. Draft an office memorandum to be circulated within an organization announcing a change in office timings, along with a suitable office order. [15]

Q9. Explain the etiquette to be observed while communicating through email, telephone and video conferencing in a corporate environment. [15]

Q10. "Technology has revolutionized the way organizations communicate both internally and externally." Discuss this statement with reference to the role of ICT in modern corporate communication. [15]